
Originally Posted by
zlya
I don't think the distinction between art music and entertainment music has anything to do with the instruments used. However, when the rock band plays Mussorgsky, do they intend it as art music or entertainment? Their performance of it may be pop music, while a performance on sitar, theremin and synthesizer may be intended for aesthetic purposes and therefore be art music.
Did Mozart write music for the masses? He was a court musician. He wrote primarily for the aristocracy, who would have had musical training. Classical composers wrote for an educated audience. Haydn's little jokes and surprises would not be surprising to a listener who did not know what to expect. Do fewer people listen to art music now than did in the 18th Century? I'm not sure. Now we have radio and recordings and low price public concerts which many people can afford. How many 18th C peasants had access to all of that?
So now we find that the masses today prefer pop music, just like the masses in the past may have preferred their slapstick comic operettas to serious operas.
I'm not saying that art music is better than entertainment music, or that people who listen to art music are better than people who listen to music for entertainment. I'm not even saying that art music isn't entertaining or that pop music isn't artistic. I am saying that now as in the past not everyone appreciates art music, whether because of lack of musical training or difference in preference. The separation between art and pop music is not new.