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hitsware
Dec-05-2004, 05:02
>hmm ok... thanks... didn't do much to enhance my understanding... but hey, it's late and a little too much physics based on terms that makes little to no sence what so ever...
is it possible to play notes lower than the (harmonic)fundamental of any given pipe? - pythagoras's teachings doesn't account for any notes lower than the fundamental. - an organ must work in sort of the same way as when you blow on the bottleneck of a bottle, or is that a wrong comparison? - so how do you get any tone lower than the "fundamental" - I can see (and hear, and play) that it's possible to "overblow" it and get the above harmonics to anygiven fundamental tuning (it's the same idea as a violin (if you press down half way you get an octave compared to the full lenght of the string - or on brass instruments when changing the tension of the embouchure/lip-buzzing or indeed a flute (which is the same way as the bottle)... but how do you go the other way? (and still have an audible sound)

If you mix a 3 and a 2 you get a 'psycoacoustc' 1
I would suggest that 'psycoacoustic' is a misnomer.
In a nonlinear universe 3+2=3,2,5,1
(the 2 original numbers and the sum and differance of the terms
The universe of music is highly non-linear....... https://www.magle.dk/ubbthreads/images/graemlins/smash.gif https://www.magle.dk/ubbthreads/images/graemlins/cheers444.gif

corno
Dec-05-2004, 12:50
Yeah I know... we did cover that much actually. The phenomenon is the same as when playing/singing two different tones on a brass instrument - where you get both of the tones and the sum and difference between then, provided they are "good for eachother" https://www.magle.dk/ubbthreads/images/graemlins/smile.gif